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sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = pi/2, then x is equal to ______.
Mathematics
Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Question
Updated
19 Aug 2026
sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = pi/2, then x is equal to ______.
A
Choose Your Answer
A
0, \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B
1, \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C
0
D
\(\frac{1}{2}\)
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