Bare Acts for AIBE Exam, Preparation Tips, MCQs with Answers

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Souvik

Souvik

Update on 2 Sep, 2025, 04:06 PM IST

Bare Acts for AIBE Exam: Bare Acts are an essential study material for law graduates and those intending to clear the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) 20, as required by the Bar Council of India (BCI). For the AIBE 20 (XX) Exam 2025, anticipated sometime in July, although dates are still awaiting announcement, candidates need to be thorough with fundamental bare acts, as command of these laws is part and parcel of practice in India's legal arena.

 

Unlike earlier editions, the AIBE is no longer an open-book test; still, the BCI allows candidates to bring bare acts, although they should not contain lengthy commentaries, into the examination hall. If bare acts with annotations are limited in number, the BCI permits students to carry ones with short notes or explanations. The practice helps ensure that examinees depend on authoritative texts and provisions while responding to questions.

 

This manual details the significance of bare acts for AIBE preparation, introduces the primary bare acts mentioned in the AIBE syllabus, presents sound strategies for making use of bare acts in exam preparation, and provides useful advice for ensuring maximum success through bare acts for the AIBE. Check AIBE Application Process 2025

 

Table of Contents
  1. Bare Acts for AIBE (20) Exam Preparation Tips
  2. Bare Acts for AIBE Exam: Topic-Wise Weightage
  3. 50 MCQs on Bare Acts for AIBE Exam

 

Bare Acts for AIBE (20) Exam Preparation Tips

Candidates who are preparing for the AIBE (20) exam and studying the Bare Acts section can follow the preparation tips below.

 

Understand Bare Acts

  • Bare Acts are the original texts of laws in statutes like the Constitution, IPC, CPC, and Evidence Act.
  • Candidates should note that Bare Acts for the exam should not have comments or lengthy explanations.

Pay Attention to the Most Important Acts

  • Candidates should begin with the central laws studied in the exam: the Constitution Law, IPC, CPC, the CrPC, Evidence Act, and the Contract Act.
  • It is helpful to memorise important sections, definitions, and timetables that are frequently asked in past exams.

Study Time Plan and Organisation

  • Break down each Bare Act into smaller modules and assign daily study targets.
  • Candidates must study and practice a limited number of sections every day and provide additional time for difficult subjects.
  • Preparing a weekly timetable will make candidates disciplined and structured.

Take Simple Notes and Mark Important Points

  • Make brief notes or underline key passages and words while reading.
  • Record section numbers and brief overviews in a notebook to quickly revise.
  • Arrange notes neatly so that the candidates can easily refer to answers while revising and during the exam.

Practice with Previous Years' Papers

  • Attempt previous AIBE question papers and mock tests to get an idea of the type of questions.
  • Use the Bare Act to answer these questions, so that candidates become accustomed to referring to it while giving the exam.
  • Highlight important parts with tabs or colored stickers so that they can be easily referred to.

Memorise Key Sections Using Simple Methods

  • Candidates can memorise section numbers and important definitions using mnemonics or memory tricks.
  • Revision is necessary regularly—read notes frequently and read tough sections aloud.
  • Discussing acts or teaching friends enables candidates to remember better.

Avoid Common Mistakes

  • Don't depend solely on Bare Acts; brief notes and a basic understanding of case laws assist with difficult subjects.
  • Avoid skipping revision; candidates need to refer to their notes and acts periodically to keep data fresh.

Stay Organised on Exam Day

  • Organise Bare Acts with neat tabs for each subject and chapter.
  • Candidates need to bring only texts without lengthy explanations or comments, according to the BCI directives.
  • Ensure to pack the permitted items prior to the exam day and keep all things organised.

Maintain Stress and Health

  • Aspirants must remain composed and attempt to comprehend what each section means.
  • During the exam day, utilise the organised Bare Acts to locate sections easily.
  • Maintain confidence and do not panic for enhanced performance.

Revisit Frequently

  • Revisit all acts and sections frequently, particularly during the final few weeks prior to the exam.
  • Regular revision aids candidates to remember everything vividly and never forget important details.

 

Bare Acts for AIBE Exam: Topic-Wise Weightage

Candidates who are preparing for the exam can check the number of questions asked from each topic in the table below.

AIBE Subjects/Syllabus

No. of Questions

Constitutional Law

10

Indian Penal Code (IPC)

8

Criminal Procedure Code (Cr PC)

10

Code of Civil Procedure (CPC)

10

Evidence Act

8

Alternate Dispute Redressal Including Arbitration Act

4

Family Law

8

Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

4

Administrative Law

3

Professional Ethics and Cases of Professional Misconduct under BCI Rules

4

Company Law

2

Environmental Law

2

Cyber Law

2

Labour and Industrial Laws

4

Law of Tort, including Motor Vehicles Act and Consumer Protection Law

5

Law of Contract, Specific Relief, Property Laws, Negotiable Instrument Act

8

Law Related to Taxation

4

Land Acquisition Act

2

Intellectual Property Laws

2

Total

100

Read AIBE Syllabus 2025

 

50 MCQs on Bare Acts for AIBE Exam

Candidates can practice these MCQs mentioned below to prepare for the Bare Act section in AIBE exam.

 

1. By which amendment was the voting age reduced to 18 years?

 

A) 42ndB) 44thC) 61stD) 73rd

 

Answer: C)

 

2. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes untouchability?

 

A) 14B) 15C) 17D) 19

 

Answer: C)

 

3. Money Bills are covered under which Article?

 

A) 110B) 112C) 113D) 115

 

Answer: A)

 

4. Directive Principles of State Policy appear in which part?

 

A) IIIB) IVC) IVAD) V

 

Answer: B)

 

5. Which Schedule deals with Municipalities?

 

A) 10thB) 11thC) 12thD) 13th

 

Answer: C)

 

6. Who is the legal advisor to a State Government?

 

A) Attorney GeneralB) Solicitor GeneralC) Advocate GeneralD) Chief Justice

 

Answer: C)

 

7. The President’s Rule under Article 356 is valid for maximum:

 

A) 6 monthsB) 1 yearC) 3 yearsD) 5 years

 

Answer: C)

 

8. Who described Directive Principles as the "manifesto of aims"?

 

A) Dr. AmbedkarB) K.M. MunshiC) Pandit NehruD) Granville Austin

 

Answer: D)

 

9. Article 21 of the Constitution deals with:

 

A) Right to equalityB) Freedom of speechC) Right to life and personal libertyD) Right against exploitation

 

Answer: C)

 

10. Schedule 5 deals with:

 

A) TribesB) OBCC) Scheduled CastesD) Minorities

 

Answer: A)

 

11. “Good faith” is defined in IPC under:

 

A) Section 52B) Section 20C) Section 96D) Section 10

 

Answer: A)

 

12. How many persons required for dacoity in IPC?

 

A) FiveB) FourC) SixD) Three

 

Answer: A)

 

13. Infancy as an exception is under which section?

 

A) Sec. 80B) Sec. 82C) Sec. 85D) Sec. 90

 

Answer: B)

 

14. Who drafted the IPC?

 

A) B. R. AmbedkarB) Lord MacaulayC) K.C. NeogyD) Motilal Nehru

 

Answer: B)

 

15. IPC covers offences relating to:

 

A) ContractsB) CrimeC) AdministrationD) Civil disputes

 

Answer: B)

 

16. ‘Culpable Homicide’ is defined under:

 

A) Sec. 299B) Sec. 300C) Sec. 302D) Sec. 304

 

Answer: A)

 

17. Definition of ‘theft’ is in:

 

A) Sec. 378B) Sec. 390C) Sec. 397D) Sec. 399

 

Answer: A)

 

18. Definition of ‘assault’ is in:

 

A) Sec. 351B) Sec. 345C) Sec. 332D) Sec. 341

 

Answer: A)

 

19. Cognizable offence is defined in:

 

A) Sec. 2(c)B) Sec. 2(a)C) Sec. 154D) Sec. 41

 

Answer: A)

 

20. Maximum period of police custody as per CrPC?

 

A) 7 daysB) 15 daysC) 30 daysD) 60 days

 

Answer: B)

 

21. Section relating to FIR is:

 

A) Sec. 154B) Sec. 156C) Sec. 160D) Sec. 161

 

Answer: A)

 

22. Inquiry means under CrPC:

 

A) InvestigationB) TrialC) Pre-trial processD) Any process other than trial

 

Answer: D)

 

23. Magistrate of First Class can award imprisonment up to:

 

A) 1 yearB) 2 yearsC) 3 yearsD) 7 years

 

Answer: C)

 

24. Compoundable offences are mentioned in:

 

A) Sec. 320B) Sec. 321C) Sec. 322D) Sec. 323

 

Answer: A)

 

25. Summons case means offence punishable with:

 

A) DeathB) More than 2 yearsC) Less than 2 yearsD) Fine only

 

Answer: C)

 

26. Section for Appearance of Parties:

 

A) Sec. 32B) Sec. 35C) Sec. 36D) Sec. 33

 

Answer: A)

 

27. Res Judicata defined in:

 

A) Sec. 11B) Sec. 10C) Sec. 13D) Sec. 9

 

Answer: A)

 

28. Temporary Injunction section:

 

A) Order 39 Rules 1 & 2B) Order 40 Rule 1C) Order 38 Rule 5D) Order 41 Rule 1

 

Answer: A)

 

29. Written Statement is governed by:

 

A) Order 8B) Order 6C) Order 7D) Order 5

 

Answer: A)

 

30. Court may grant time for written statement up to:

 

A) 30 daysB) 90 daysC) 120 daysD) 60 days

 

Answer: C)

 

31. Section 3 defines:

 

A) DocumentB) EvidenceC) RelevancyD) All of the above

 

Answer: D)

 

32. Which section deals with ‘res gestae’?

 

A) 5B) 6C) 32D) 45

 

Answer: B)

 

33. Section 32 covers:

 

A) ConfessionB) Dying declarationC) Relevancy of factsD) Expert Opinion

 

Answer: B)

 

34. Section 65B relates to:

 

A) Secondary evidenceB) Electronic recordsC) Primary evidenceD) Presumption

 

Answer: B)

 

35. Admissibility of expert opinion is under:

 

A) Section 45B) Section 47C) Sec. 50D) Sec. 52

 

Answer: A)

 

36. Burden of proof is defined under:

 

A) Sec. 101B) Sec. 105C) Sec. 107D) Sec. 113

 

Answer: A)

 

37. Privileged communication between husband and wife is:

 

A) AdmissibleB) InadmissibleC) DiscretionaryD) Not addressed

 

Answer: B)

 

38. Confession of a co-accused can be used:

 

A) As evidenceB) Substantive proofC) Only to corroborateD) Not at all

 

Answer: C)

 

39. Enforcement date of Indian Contract Act?

 

A) 1 Jan 1872B) 1 Oct 1872C) 1 Sep 1872D) 1 July 1872

 

Answer: B)

 

40. Agreement without consideration is void under:

 

A) Sec. 10B) Sec. 25C) Sec. 23D) Sec. 14

 

Answer: B)

 

41. Section for mistake of fact:

 

A) Sec. 20B) Sec. 22C) Sec. 25D) Sec. 27

 

Answer: A)

 

42. Doctrine of frustration is embodied in:

 

A) Sec. 39B) Sec. 56C) Sec. 51D) Sec. 62

 

Answer: B)

 

43. Lalman Shukla vs Gauri Dutt is related to:

 

A) ConsiderationB) Offer and acceptanceC) Doctrine of privityD) Quasi-contract

 

Answer: B)

 

44. Defamation is a:

 

A) CrimeB) TortC) Breach of ContractD) Breach of Trust

 

Answer: B)

 

45. Damages that are remote in tort:

 

A) Not recoverableB) RecoverableC) SubjectiveD) Only by court discretion

 

Answer: A)

 

46. Who can raise an industrial dispute?

 

A) IndividualB) Trade UnionC) GovernmentD) None

 

Answer: B)

 

47. Minimum number of members in a public company?

 

A) 2B) 3C) 7D) 10

 

Answer: C)

 

48. Trademark is protected under which act?

 

A) Copyright ActB) Trademark ActC) Patent ActD) Design Act

 

Answer: B)

 

49. Which act governs cybercrimes in India?

 

A) IT Act 2000B) Evidence ActC) Penal CodeD) IPC

 

Answer: A)

 

50. 'Polluter Pays Principle' is related to:

 

A) Criminal LawB) Contract LawC) Environmental LawD) Family Law

 

Answer: C)

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